Economic Factors Affecting UK Non League Football Clubs

Economic Factors Affecting UK Non League Football Clubs An investigation of the economic factors affecting the commercial success and sustainability of UK non league football clubs Introduction Football clubs are traditionally not the strongest or most profitable businesses. This is supported by Deloitte’s (2007) annual report into the state of football finance, which stated that, outside of the Premier League, UK football as an industry recorded a net operating loss. Even in the Premier League, where clubs benefit from higher levels of sponsorship, media exposure and TV revenues, four clubs posted an operating loss in the 2005 / 2006 season. This implies that, the lower the division a club is in, the harder it is for them to survive and become commercially sustainable, let alone successful. Indeed, there is an argument that many football clubs will not survive without some form of outside financial support, such as a rich benefactor or owner. However, with increasing pressure from fans to spend money on securing the best players and challenging for success, whilst not increasing ticket prices to cover any additional expenditure, many wealthy businessmen, and even mu lti millionaires, are finding that bankrolling a football club is beyond their means. This is reflected in the view of Henk Potts, a strategist at Barclays who claims that â€Å"Any business model that revolves around 11 overpaid players kicking a piece of dead cow around on a wet November evening is no place to put your money† (Tomlinson, 2004). Issues such as these are exacerbated at the non league level. Not only must non league clubs put up with similar demands for success, but they often find themselves within the catchment area of a league, or even Premier League, club. In addition, with the rise of cable and satellite television, many people who would have previously watched their local non league teams on a regular basis can now choose to watch a variety of league matches from the comfort of their own home. This has put downward pressure on attendances for a number of non league clubs, making it even harder for them to survive and succeed. Ashford Town is a prime example of such a struggling club. As can be seen from the six years of accounts in the appendix, Ashford Town’s level of debt has increased from less than  £40,000 at the end of 2002 to more than  £90,000 at the end of 2007. In the same period, the club’s losses, and hence net worth, has fallen to - £70,000, with the club posting a net lo ss in every single one of the last six years. Attempting to address issues such as these is something which has been the subject of significant amounts of research and discussion over the past few decades. As such, this dissertation will not attempt to reach a solution to all of the numerous issues affecting the modern UK football industry. Instead, it will attempt to determine the extent to which contemporary management theories and techniques can be used by non league football clubs aiming to improve their sustainability. This aspect has been chosen because, in spite of the significant amount of research carried out into the sustainability of football as a business model, there has been little attention paid to smaller non league clubs. As such, the initial investigation will entail a detailed and structured review of the existing literature, around how the commercialisation of football has developed and what useful lessons this can provide. This will be followed up by a questionnaire survey of ten non league football clubs, i ncluding Ashford Town, to determine the extent to which they have followed contemporary business practices, and the extent to which said practices have aided their commercial sustainability. Finally, the results of these investigations will be used to attempt to put together a business plan for Ashford Town, in an attempt to demonstrate how the club may be able to turn its current, loss making, performance around. Aim and objectives As discussed above, the main aim of this dissertation will be to carry out an investigation of the economic factors which impact on the commercial success and sustainability of non league football clubs in the UK, and how contemporary management theories may be able to assist in boosting said success. In order to achieve this, it will be necessary to examine how football has developed as a commercial enterprise, and how this has impacted on the divisions of revenue and profits within the industry. As part of this, it would be useful to analyse the main revenue streams of football clubs, as well as the main parts of their cost base, and how these can best be managed. One of the main sources of revenue for most clubs will likely be gate receipts, however many clubs will likely make a significant amount of revenue from marketing, commercial activities, and sponsorship, particularly in the upper leagues where commercial opportunities are likely to be larger. However, it is expected that commercial and marketing opportunities will also exist in the lower leagues, and even for non league sides. As such, this piece will also investigate the extent to which non league teams take advantage of these opportunities, as well as the need to control for factors such as on pitch performance and success, with the associated potential prize money and increased takings. The following objectives will be addressed as part of this study: To assess the factors which underlie the commercial success of football clubs, and hence also the factors which could lead to clubs going into administration, and potentially ceasing to exist. To examine some of the most successful football clubs and football business practices in the UK, and identify how these clubs and practices can contribute to maintaining commercial sustainability. To examine the extent to which contemporary models of business organisation and competitive strategy are relevant to football clubs. To identify and analyse the role broader business opportunities can play in increasing the stability of football clubs. To identify areas of financial savings and cost efficiency which can be used by football clubs without adversely affecting their on pitch performance. It is expected that, in answering these objectives through the literature and primary research, sufficient insight will be obtained to allow the formulation of conclusions and recommendations for non league football clubs wishing to boost their income, or control their costs. These conclusions and recommendations will be used to analyse the commercial business potential of Ashford Town, as a key example of a struggling non league football club. As such, part of the final report will include recommendations for inclusion into sustainable business plans detailing how the club can learn from other clubs, and economic and management theories, to ensure future economic stability. Ideally, in addressing the various objectives above, and looking at the ongoing performance of Ashford Town, it should be possible to gain an understanding of the critical factors which can affect the commercial sustainability of the football club. As such, the findings can then be applied to Ashford Town, helpin g to contribute to the recommendations around the formation of a sustainable business plan. Methodology Research is defined as the collection of data in order to answer research questions or address research objectives. As this obviously presents a significant range of potential data to collect, and numerous ways to collect it, there are various defined theoretical approaches, the most important of which will be assessed in this section. These are: action research, surveys, case studies, experimentation, grounded theory and ethnography (Saunders et al, 2007). The first of these, action research, involves researchers actively collaborating and working with practitioners in their chosen field in order to investigate a well defined issue or problem, with the aim of finding practical solutions to said issue. As such, action research is a highly involved research methodology, which enables researchers to examine an issue in significant depth, investigating the root causes and creating detailed cause and effect chains. However, it can cause the researcher to have too narrow a focus when exam ining the problem, leading them to ignore contributing factors from outside their field of study. Indeed, in a study such as this one, where the aim is to determine what the factors affecting football club commercial success are, action research is likely to be unsuitable. Surveys, on the other hand, are more often used for descriptive and exploratory research, as they enable the researcher to cover a wide scope and thus make recommendations for future research and study. In addition, surveys allow researchers to collect significant amounts of both qualitative and quantitative data, thus supporting a broad range of qualitative and quantitative analysis techniques. This is because surveys can include questionnaires and various types of interviews. Of course, the counter to this is that the broad reach of surveys makes it hard for researchers to gain much depth to their research, and surveys are unlikely to reveal the root causes of the phenomena they observe. Case studies represent something of a middle ground, combining the best aspects of action research and surveys, and thus allowing for both depth and breadth to be obtained. This is because they carry out research at a distance from an organisation, thus avoiding the researcher becoming too involved with the organisation, and developing a narrow view. However, the attempt to achieve both depth and breadth means that the research will not actually achieve full depth or full breadth, rather it will fall somewhere in between (Saunders et al, 2007). The other three approaches, experimentation, grounded theory and ethnography, do not actually refer to the collection of data, but to the methods used to observe and categorise said data. Of these, experimentation is based on setting up specific scenarios, in order to determine how said scenarios occur, and then compare the results to theoretical predictions. As part of this, certain external factors can be controlled, whilst others are allowed to vary, hence making it easier to observe and categorise certain factors as either causative or non causative, and also to rank the impact of each factor. Unfortunately, such experiments are often difficult to set up, particularly when attempting to observe large and complicated phenomena. In addition, there is an argument that the level of control implied in experimentation creates unrealistic environments, within which individuals do not behave as they do when not being observed or where nothing is controlled (Saunders et al, 2007). In cont rast, grounded theory focuses on observing scenarios naturally, observing what the factors are affecting said scenario, and attempting to use theoretical perspectives to explain what occurs. These theoretical perspectives are then tested against other scenarios, and refined until they describe the behaviour of the phenomenon as well as possible. Finally, ethnography is more inductive, and involves simply observed the phenomenon, looking at the factors which have combined to cause it, and attempting to decide which key factors and behaviours have caused the phenomenon to behave as it did. In contrast to grounded theory, ethnography does not attempt to objectively define the various factors and theoretical models affecting an observed phenomenon. Instead, ethnography focused on the qualitative effects which both the factors and the individuals concerned have on a phenomenon, and also looks at the perceptions the actors have of the key causal factors (Saunders et al, 2007). In this case, because this dissertation is attempting to analyse a more general phenomenon,: the factors affecting the commercial success of football clubs, a broad research perspective should be taken. As such, this piece will use a survey, to help frame and investigate said factors, as well as using a limited case study of Ashford Town, to examine the fact ors which specifically impact on this club. Ethnography will be used as a guiding principle when analysing the results and attempting to determine which factors are most important to non league football clubs. This is because football clubs are not renowned for their use of specific management theory and techniques, and hence any attempt to directly fit their behaviour to the theory would likely harm the relevance of the results to other clubs looking to make use of them. In addition, the nature of football, where success is defined by on pitch results rather than profitability, means that existing theory is unlikely to be an exact fit to the football context. As such, ethnography will be used to help explain the techniques used, and how these could fit to management theory and observations. The surveys themselves will include both a questionnaire and an interview with the club officials, either the club Secretary or Chairman, regarding the commercial realities confronting the club, as well as the existing financial situation including any handouts from wealthy club benefactors, loans, grants, and sponsorship. Unfortunately, details of the income and revenue streams are not available, and thus it is impossible to complete a full and detailed analysis of income streams and expenditure analysis, with the exception of those of Ashford Town. As such, the findings will be used to analyse the revenue and costs of Ashford Town, with the aim being to assist in assessing the clubs overall position; and whether it is under performing, or whether a business and financial saturation point has been reached. Given that only the financial accounts, and not the management accounts, of Ashford Town are available, detailed analysis of the revenue streams and costs will not be possible. As such, and as discussed above, the quality and depth of data is likely to limit the extent to which specific recommendations can be made. In addition, this dissertation will attempt to make use of both qualitative and quantitative data, as both of these types of data can make positive contributions to a study. Qualitative data methods aim to gather data which is difficult to represent in a numerical form. As such, qualitative data gathering tends to focus more on asking people their opinion around certain topics, as well as their perceptions of various factors. As such, qualitative data tends to be richer than its quantitative equivalent, although it is usually not as easy to analyse and represent it in graphical forms or through statistical analysis techniques. This is because qualitative data can help to explain why relationships occur between data, as well as helping to explain relationships that are not as unclear when examined from a quantitative point of view. In contrast, quantitative data collection methods tend to based on simply gathering and analysing quantitative observations and data, or data which can be represented in a numerical form. This is usually achieved through actually observing quantifiable phenomena, such as the profits made by football clubs or the number of clubs going into administration. However, it can also be gathered by asking individuals to assess qualitative factors from a quantitative point of view, such as by asking them to rank factors on a Likert scale, like the importance of their sources of income (Saunders et al, 2007). As a result, whilst this piece will look to use some quantitative data, the primary research and data analysis will be performed via qualitative data, analysis, and interpretation. As a consequence of the above discussion, this dissertation will use one main method of primary data collection, and one secondary method, to address the research questions. This will thus help increase the value of the dissertation, by providing more depth and insight to the analysis, as well as allowing triangulation with the results from the literature review, which will increase the validity of any conclusions and recommendations (Saunders et al, 2007). The main method of primary data collection will be the questionnaire survey of ten non league football clubs. This data will be used to assess the various factors impacting on these clubs, and their relative importance, as well as looking at the key income streams and costs incurred by the various clubs. As such, this data will be both qualitative and quantitative, and will act as the survey part of the methodology. The secondary set of primary data will be obtained from the financial accounts of Ashford Town, which will be provid ed. Whilst these accounts are not likely to be very detailed, they will help add depth to the study, and will demonstrate the actual financial situation the club is in as well as help contextualise the possible additional revenue streams the club is able to generate. As such, this section will represent the case study part of the study, whilst being driven and directed by the results of the survey discussed above. This will enable the provision of additional depth, through an in depth look at the actual accounts of a non league football club. This will help provide the ideal balance of breadth and depth. In addition, the collection of data from two distinct sources, the internal survey of staff and the financial results intended for external use, will help create a more accurate and independent triangulation between the various results, as well as a better analysis of the factors underlying them. This cross sectional data collection and analysis is critical in facilitating the use of both quantitative and qualitative analysis, as discussed above, and will help to further increase the value and the academic impact of this dissertation. However, given that commercial sustainability is not a concept which can be easily described through simple quantitative data, the qualitative part of the report is likely to be more important when attempting to determine the factors which underlie the commercial success and sustainability of non league football clubs. Regarding the sample size, it was necessary to find a balance between the need to have a large sample size, and the need to maintain a manageable quantity of data, as well as to fit all of the data collection and analysis in what is a very short period of time. As such, it was decided to collect data from just ten selected non league football clubs. These clubs are Ashford Town FC, Bromley FC, Burscough FC, Chatham Town FC, Corinthians FC, Croydon Athletic FC, Dartford FC, Ebbsfleet United FC, Whitstable FC and AFC Wim. These clubs have been selected as they were most responsive to initial attempts to contact them, and are also within reasonably close geographic proximity thus making the collection of data somewhat simpler. As such, they also represent teams from a fairly close geographic area, and thus should be affected by similar factors and economic effects. When carrying out questionnaires with the clubs, no club requested complete anonymity, and indeed all expresses an interest in seeing the final results of the study to see if it would be of use to them in determining how to best improve their business performance and sustainability. As each questionnaire is relatively straightforward, it was decided to only use one questionnaire for each club, to keep the data set simple and consistent. In order to analyse the qualitative data which is produced from the surveys, it will be necessary to use a research strategy to interpret and validate the data. Positivism has been selected as the research strategy for this piece because, of the four main research philosophies, or paradigms, which can be used to guide and interpret qualitative research, positivism is the one which is most concerned with the facts, rather than the impressions arising from the research (Saunders et al, 2007). This makes positivism ideal for analysing the subject of health and safety in the oil industry, as this can be an emotive and important issue for many workers in the oil industry, as has been shown in the literature review. As such, it will be necessary to avoid forming impressions when carrying out the research, and particularly when analysing the results of the questionnaires. Positivism can help avoid such subjectivity by ensuring that the researcher takes a scientific approach to the research, and minimises the impact of impressions and judgements. Indeed, positivism is based in the original work of Comte, who argued that knowledge can only even be relative, and hence will always be affected by the method used to gather it (Sellars, 1939). This implies that any attempt to interpret the motivations of a respondent in a research project will be affected by the method of data collection, and thus will be blurred. As such, the researcher should concentrate solely on the observed facts, rather than attempting to contextualise or rationalise their observations. However, the main disadvantage of positivism is that, simply be observing or recording an event, such as someone’s views on health and safety, can tend to influence the motivations of the subject, and hence their responses. As a researcher using a positivist paradigm cannot speculate on any potential changes in motivation, this may mean that the actions observed will not be wholly consistent with the actual behaviour in the absence of observation. For example, if a senior manager at an oil company were asked their opinion about health and safety legislation, they may give a different answer to their true opinion of the subject, as they may feel that their public persona needs to be displayed in a certain way. This can hopefully be avoided, to a certain degree, in the questionnaires by not revealing the overall purpose of the survey; assuring the respondent of neutrality; and ensuring that the questionnaire is as neutral as possible. This is based on the argument that if the su bject is unaware of what their responses will be used for, they will be less likely to change their behaviour accordingly. Caldwell (1980) also argues that the face that positivism is based on observations, and not on the fundamental motivations behind said observations, means that it is incompatible with financial and economic viewpoints. This is because economics is based on the study of people’s motivations and decisions in situations where everyone is seen as either a buyer or supplier, and hence everyone acts according to a motivation. For example, when asked if they would prefer additional health and safety legislation, oil executives would naturally answer no, as the cost of compliance would decrease their profits. This occurs because the oil executive’s salary depends on their financial performance, hence they are motivated to avoid anything which may have a negative effect on said performance. Whilst this incompatibility and bias has not been empirically proven; Caldwell (1980, p. 53) argues that it has â€Å"been sufficiently robust to cause many contemporary analysts to turn to alternative approaches†. This implies that such factors need to be addressed when constructing the questionnaires, and that questions which will have an innate connection to, or dependence or, economic and financial factors should be avoided. This implies that, as discussed above, the financial impacts of the health and safety legislation will need to be studied as a secondary priority. Literature Review The history of professional football and commercialism Wray (1982) argues that the late nineteenth century, when significant riches were brought into the UK by the Industrial Revolution and during the Victorian era, was the start of true commercialisation of sport in the UK. This assessment is based on a study of the economics of the gate receipts taken by the football industry in Scotland between 1890 and 1914. This analysis showed that, not only were some entrepreneurs looking to profit from football by commercialising its, but others were looking to do so with the aim of winning more matches, tournaments and hence glory and status. Indeed, whilst the majority of the companies involving themselves in sports such as cycling and horse racing were simply looking to use the sport to create wealth for themselves and their shareholders, the majority of football clubs in Scotland were converted to business principles purely to enhance sporting success. As such, conventional profit and shareholder utility maximisation goals arguably applied mu ch more to other sports than to football, where supporter utility maximisation took precedence. However, Wray (1982) also claims that there was a significant focus on supporter and team utility in other team sports such as cricket, and this was again due to the motives behind the owners, directors and shareholders in many cricket teams. It appears that the British affinity with sports such as football and cricket meant that they developed with the aim of satisfying the fans, whilst the other sports, with less of a spectator following, developed more with the aim of providing financial returns. In addition, the drive towards commercialisation, and in an attempt to assure competitive success, Wilders (1976) reported that, in 1976, all the 92 clubs in the English League, except for Nottingham Forest, had become limited liability companies. This allowed the owners to spend large amounts of money; with no fear of debtors looking to their personal funds should the club fail to break even. In addition, of those companies, more than half the boards of directors held enough shares to make it virtually impossible for the other shareholders to outvote them on any matter. In particular, in 1967, Wilders (1976) reported that there were 22 clubs where the chairman and board of directors owned more than half of the shares; and a further 55 where the board of directors owned over 25 per cent of the shares. In addition to this, in more than a third of said clubs approval was required by the board of directors if anyone wished to sell their shares. As such, the distribution of shares change d very little as the game commercialised, and the clubs continued to be run for the benefit of the directors and chairman, with ordinary shareholders having very little say in the running of the clubs or the returns they earned on their investment. Sloan (1969) also argues that football’s commercial development was driven largely by the significant non financial advantages and disadvantages of being employed as a professional footballer. The main argument appears to be that playing football is a source of great enjoyment for a significant number of people, as witnessed by the thousands of amateur and non league sides which pay without any financial reward. As such, football tends to give players a degree of satisfaction which few other jobs provide, as well as potentially allowing the best players to become national celebrities, with associated additional income and exposure from activities such as writing books; commenting on other footballers performances; and advertising various products and services. In addition, during the initial development of the sport, clubs tended to provide players with houses let at below market rents, as well as giving them significant freedom outside of training and match days. In addition, the fact that the season only covers around nine months of the year, excluding internationals, means that players tend to have significant amounts of free time during the summer break, and even when training they often have several hours free each day. This is countered by the fact that players require a high degree of fitness, and will often need to be away from home for several nights if their schedule demands it. However, Sloan (1969) concludes that football seems to confer more advantages to players than disadvantages, which has helped to raise the profile of professional and semi professional football, and thus contribute to the number of players, and hence number of clubs, in the modern game (Sloan, 1969). This obviously places pressure on the market, with it being difficult and expensive for supporters to follow more than one club, hence making it difficult for smaller clubs to attract supporters. However, countering this is the fact that, since early on in the evolution of the English Football League, the transfer system acted to restrict the movement of labour, to an extent that is rarely seen in other industries. The rules of the transfer system state that any player who wishes to appear for a league club must be employed by that club, in the case of professional players, and must be registered with the Football League, as well as the English Football Association. As such, the only way a player may move between clubs is if both clubs and both ruling bodies approve the transfer. As such, this procedure requires both clubs, the player, the Football League and the FA to consent, effectively giving clubs monopolies over the services of their players for the duration of their fixed length contracts. This is a situation which would not be accepted in other industries, and has regularly been compared with trading slaves, with players often having very little say in where their clu b makes them move (BBC, 2008). Indeed, the fact that transfers almost always involve the payment of a fee by the club who the player is joining further enhances the slave trade connotations. As such, whereas most businesses would attempt to attract new employees by offering higher wages or better working conditions, football clubs are forced to offer high wages, better working conditions, and pay a large fee to the club from which they source the new player. Given that the fees have risen from  £1,000 in 1905,  £10,000 in 1928,  £100,000 in 1961, and into the tens of millions by the present day, it is clear that the increased demand for the best players is forcing clubs to devote ever more funds to transfer fees and wages, particularly when bidding against other clubs to secure the best players (Sloane, 1969). However, in spite of the multi million pound deals which they have been charged with sourcing and carrying out, Wilders (1976) reported that the majority of managers still tended not to have any form of formal training. Indeed, in Wilders’ (1976) survey of 28 English League managers, 16 managers claimed that they would have benefitted from some sort of business and financial course when carrying out their duties and developing their careers. Wilders (1976) claims that this is not the most surprising aspect, the most surprising aspect is that twelve of the managers surveyed believed that they did not need any formal training, and that their experience as a player would be sufficient to help them discharge their managerial responsibilities. However, this belief that playing experience alone provides sufficient training and skills for the demands of football management is arguably one of the reasons why so many clubs have failed to develop as businesses: the skills of professiona l footballers do not tend to include financial and business dealings, or the need to balance budgets. Indeed, the results of the survey indicated a general belief that the majority of football managers knew about the footballing side of their job, but generally knew very little about the need to manage the financial side of the business. As such, the general belief that the best footballers tend to make the best managers has not necessarily been borne out, with many of the best managers having been mediocre footballers at best. In fact, Wilder (1976) claims that the technical gifts needed to make a footballer can often hinder the effective management of clubs. The rise of commercialisation Whilst commercialisation has been a significant trend in the football industry in the UK for the past few years, its only since the 1980s that football in the UK, and the whole of Europe, has truly developed as a major commercial industry. This is evidenced by the fact that, in 1986 the 22 First Division clubs in England had a combined annual tur

New Zealand Early Childhood Curriculum Essay -- Education, elementary

Fleer claims â€Å"there are many theoretical voices within Te WhÄ riki,† the New Zealand Early Childhood Curriculum document (Nuttall, 2003, p.254). However two are predominant and stand symbiotically on the pages and in the intent of the curriculum. Bronfenbrenner’s ecological, system’s theory, which emphasises how the quality and setting of the child’s environment influences the child (Ministry of Education, 1996; Paquette, & Ryan, 2001) and Vygotsky’s ‘sociocultural theory,’ which describes learning as a social process originating in society or culture and passed through generations (UNESCO, 2004). Discussed within this essay will be a review of these theoretical perspectives illustrating their explanations for how each influences the child, how the child learns, how development is explained, and how these theories are reflected within Te WhÄ riki. Bronfenbrenner’s ecological, system’s theory describes how the child and their immediate surroundings are in an innermost layer surrounded, embedded and influenced by layers from the larger environment all impacting upon the child (Ministry of Education, 1996; Paquette, & Ryan, 2001). Of particular interest are the effects to the child of two way relationships towards and away from the child, as defined by Bronfenbrenner as bi-directional influences, these are particularly influential in the child’s inner layer. For instance: the impact to the child of attentive or non-attentive parents affects how the child reacts to a given situation, which in turn affects how the parent behaves. Notwithstanding, the impact of bi-directional influences on the child’s world continues into the outer layers, as in the example of a parent’s workplace demanding more input into the workplace, which means... ... social aspects have a huge influence on these surroundings. This is demonstrated when whÄ nau are involved and supportive in a child’s life, sharing the family’s and their culture’s funds of knowledge, resulting in the positive effect to the child’s environment which will have vast social and educational impacts by ensuring connections are made to children’s lives and experiences. Adding to this is the socio-cultural philosophy of peer tutoring and where knowledge is actively constructed through modelling and scaffolding, with teachers facilitating the learning process. While through the building of relationships between the family and the centre, Te WhÄ riki advocates the importance of the involvement of whÄ nau and family, which encourages a learning community which has interchangeable reciprocal advantages in a safe, positive, fun, caring, learning environment.

Kompyuter Adiksyon

E. Competition In the Tagaytay City we have several competitors in the terms of Shawarma product and there are also a lot of food charts that place in the different area of Tagaytay City because it is the tourist spot in the Philippines. The main targets of this food chart are the lower middle to upper middle class and some are tourist international and local. Our indirect competitors are Mr. Mappy pizza, Potato Chips, Siomai, Angel’s Burger and etc. Our direct competitors in the area Turks (Olivarez) and Alibaba Shawarma (magallenes branch and robinson tagaytay). Market Shares:Turk’s Shawarma (Olivarez Plaza) is the number one in market shares because of its place and the volume of people go in Olivarez Plaza while Alibaba Shawarma (Robinson Tagaytay Branch) is the number two on the spot because of its place but theres a lot of competitors in the place like restaurant and fast food chains and Alibaba Shawarma (magallenes square Branch) it is the last spots because in t he that place only workers of different establishment are the customer because that place have different restaurant and food chains to choose from like Leslies, Max restaurant, Yellow Cab and many more.Resources: Since, this establishment is food stall type and there is a Franchisee and Franchisor. The resources of the business are comes from the Franchisor all the thing that will be needed in the business comes from franchisor. Product and Market Focus The product is shawarma product it is meat preparation, where  lamb,  chicken,  turkey,  beef,  veal, or mixed meats are placed on a  spit  (commonly a vertical spit in  restaurants), and may be grilled for as long as a day. Shavings are cut off the block of meat for serving, and the remainder of the block of meat is kept heated on the rotating spit.There market focuses to sell the product on their target market they only focus on selling the product they not create new idea about the product. Goals They goal is to se ll a delicious shawarma to their customer and serve the best shawarma on the place. Strategies This food stall only focuses in selling the product to their customer they not focus on how their establishment continues to operate. Their also dependent on their franchisor all planning and strategies comes from their franchisor. Strengths and WeaknessesAll establishments has a nice place but the product they offer is only limited in terms of sizes and different variety of flavor. Key Barriers to Entry There no vacant place to rent There are so many stalls in the place There are no yet crews for the business There is no yet a stall for the business Our product is unique from the other shawarma product because our product is a kind of street food that is of the same concept as Shawarma which is thinly sliced meat mixed with chopped vegetables and is rolled into a large piece of steamed bread. The difference from our product and the traditional shawarma is that we modified the fillings.We will not fill the bread with the usual meat and vegetables. Instead, we will add new flavors to the traditional shawarma. Examples are Spaghetti, Pizza and California maki flavored shawarma. We will address our product as shawarma because the idea of filipino consumers of shawarma is filled flatbread which is applied in our new product. This new product will be named â€Å"Shawarmalaya†. Shawarmalaya came from the words â€Å"Shawarma† and â€Å"Malaya. Shawarma because the concept of this food is derived from the traditional shawarma and Malaya because customers can freely choose from the new flavors of shawarma.The idea of this product is mostly derived from the traditional shawarma so the preparation of this product will be quite the same. The facilities to be used will also be the same except for the vertical grill used in cooking the traditional shawarma meat. We will also be needing an oven and steamers for the baking and steaming of the bread. Usual kitchen ute nsils will also be used for cooking and preparing the fillings. The processes and technology to be used in the preparation of this product will not be as high-tech as used in making the traditional shawarma.Since we are short on facility and capital, we have decided to use alternatives to make the product. The use of old processes of making food will also mean less cost and expenses which will be good for the group/company. The usual shawarma meat is cooked in a vertical grill, in our case; we will just grill meat in an old fashioned way which will make the meat tastier and cost less. On the other hand, the preparation of the bread will be the same as the traditional shawarma which is baked and steamed then rolled with the fillings.This idea is innovative in a way. We managed to add a twist and modify an already existing product. We didn’t change the form of the product but its approach. We are trying to make a new perception of shawarma on the minds of the consumers. We also want the consumers to enjoy the food they like in a new more flavorful way. Our product is difficult to copy because we have secret ingredient to put up to the product and we have the best suppliers that will supply best ingredients that will be needed.Our competitors will be surprise because we have different approach to our customer because they have the free will to choose what the flavor will be put to their shawarmalaya. Our competitors will be surprise because we have different variety to choose from we have different flavors that is new to the eyes and taste of the consumer. When we launch our product we will do first 100 customers is free to taste our product and first one week of our product is by one take one. In takes a lot of time to copy our product because it is unique and it has different ingredients to find.

Cisa Essays

Cisa Essays Cisa Essay Cisa Essay 1. A benefit of open system architecture is that it: A. facilitates interoperability. B. facilitates the integration of proprietary components. C. will be a basis for volume discounts from equipment vendors. D. allows for the achievement of more economies of scale for equipment. ANSWER: A NOTE: Open systems are those for which suppliers provide components whose interfaces are defined by public standards, thus facilitating interoperability between systems made by different vendors. In contrast, closed system components are built to proprietary standards so that other suppliers systems cannot or will not interface with existing systems. . An IS auditor discovers that developers have operator access to the command line of a production environment operating system. Which of the following controls would BEST mitigate the risk of undetected and unauthorized program changes to the production environment? A. Commands typed on the command line are logged B. Hash keys are calculated periodical ly for programs and matched against hash keys calculated for the most recent authorized versions of the programs C. Access to the operating system command line is granted through an access restriction tool with preapproved rights D. Software development tools and compilers have been removed from the production environment ANSWER: B NOTE: The matching of hash keys over time would allow detection of changes to files. Choice A is incorrect because having a log is not a control, reviewing the log is a control. Choice C is incorrect because the access was already granted- it does not matter how. Choice D is wrong because files can be copied to and from the production environment. 3. In the context of effective information security governance, the primary objective of value delivery is to: A. optimize security investments in support of business objectives. B. implement a standard set of security practices. C. institute a standards-based solution. D. implement a continuous improvement culture. ANSWER: A NOTE: In the context of effective information security governance, value delivery is implemented to ensure optimization of security investments in support of business objectives. The tools and techniques for implementing value delivery include implementation of a standard set of security practices, institutionalization and commoditization of standards-based solutions, and implementation of a continuous improvement culture considering security as a process, not an event. 4. During a review of a business continuity plan, an IS auditor noticed that the point at which a situation is declared to be a crisis has not been defined. The MAJOR risk associated with this is that: A. assessment of the situation may be delayed. B. execution of the disaster recovery plan could be impacted. C. notification of the teams might not occur. D. potential crisis recognition might be ineffective. ANSWER: B NOTE: Execution of the business continuity plan would be impacted if the organization does not know when to declare a crisis. Choices A, C and D are steps that must be performed to know whether to declare a crisis. Problem and severity assessment would provide information necessary in declaring a disaster. Once a potential crisis is recognized, the teams responsible for crisis management need to be notified. Delaying this step until a disaster has been declared would negate the effect of having response teams. Potential crisis recognition is the first step in responding to a disaster. 5. When implementing an IT governance framework in an organization the MOST important objective is: A. IT alignment with the business. B. accountability. C. value realization with IT. D. enhancing the return on IT investments. ANSWER: A NOTE: The goals of IT governance are to improve IT performance, to deliver optimum business value and to ensure regulatory compliance. The key practice in support of these goals is the strategic alignment of IT with the business (choice A). To achieve alignment, all other choices need to be tied to business practices and strategies. 6. When reviewing an implementation of a VoIP system over a corporate WAN, an IS auditor should expect to find: A. an integrated services digital network (ISDN) data link. B. traffic engineering. C. wired equivalent privacy (WEP) encryption of data. D. analog phone terminals. ANSWER: B NOTE: To ensure that quality of service requirements are achieved, the Voice-over IP (VoIP) service over the wide area network (WAN) should be protected from packet losses, latency or jitter. To reach this objective, the network performance can be managed using statistical techniques such as traffic engineering. The standard bandwidth of an integrated services digital network (ISDN) data link would not provide the quality of services required for corporate VoIP services. WEP is an encryption scheme related to wireless networking. The VoIP phones are usually connected to a corporate local area network (LAN) and are not analog. 7. An IS auditor selects a server for a penetration test that will be carried out by a technical specialist. Which of the following is MOST important? A. The tools used to conduct the test B. Certifications held by the IS auditor C. Permission from the data owner of the server D. An intrusion detection system (IDS) is enabled ANSWER: C NOTE: The data owner should be informed of the risks associated with a penetration test, what types of tests are to be conducted and other relevant details. All other choices are not as important as the data owners responsibility for the security of the data assets. 8. Which of the following is a risk of cross-training? A. Increases the dependence on one employee B. Does not assist in succession planning C. One employee may know all parts of a system D. Does not help in achieving a continuity of operations ANSWER: C NOTE: When cross-training, it would be prudent to first assess the risk of any person knowing all parts of a system and what exposures this may cause. Cross-training has the advantage of decreasing dependence on one employee and, hence, can be part of succession planning. It also provides backup for personnel in the event of absence for any reason and thereby facilitates the continuity of operations. 9. The use of digital signatures: A. requires the use of a one-time password generator. B. provides encryption to a message. C. validates the source of a message. D. ensures message confidentiality. ANSWER: C NOTE: The use of a digital signature verifies the identity of the sender, but does not encrypt the whole message, and hence is not enough to ensure confidentiality. A one-time password generator is an option, but is not a requirement for using digital signatures. 0. A retail outlet has introduced radio frequency identification (RFID) tags to create unique serial numbers for all products. Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern associated with this initiative? A. Issues of privacy B. Wavelength can be absorbed by the human body C. RFID tags may not be removable D. RFID eliminates line-of-sight reading ANSWER: A NOTE: The purchaser of an item wil l not necessarily be aware of the presence of the tag. If a tagged item is paid for by credit card, it would be possible to tie the unique ID of that item to the identity of the purchaser. Privacy violations are a significant concern because RFID can carry unique identifier numbers. If desired it would be possible for a firm to track individuals who purchase an item containing an RFID. Choices B and C are concerns of less importance. Choice D is not a concern. 11. A lower recovery time objective (RTO) results in: A. higher disaster tolerance. B. higher cost. C. wider interruption windows. D. more permissive data loss. ANSWER: B NOTE: A recovery time objective (RTO) is based on the acceptable downtime in case of a disruption of operations. The lower the RTO, the higher the cost of recovery strategies. The lower the disaster tolerance, the narrower the interruption windows, and the lesser the permissive data loss. 12. During the requirements definition phase of a software development project, the aspects of software testing that should be addressed are developing: A. test data covering critical applications. B. detailed test plans. C. quality assurance test specifications. D. user acceptance testing specifications. ANSWER: D NOTE: A key objective in any software development project is to ensure that the developed software will meet the business objectives and the requirements of the user. The users should be involved in the requirements definition phase of a development project and user acceptance test specification should be developed during this phase. The other choices are generally performed during the system testing phase. 13. The BEST filter rule for protecting a network from being used as an amplifier in a denial of service (DoS) attack is to deny all: A. outgoing traffic with IP source addresses external to the network. B. incoming traffic with discernible spoofed IP source addresses. C. incoming traffic with IP options set. D. incoming traffic to critical hosts. ANSWER: A NOTE: Outgoing traffic with an IP source address different than the IP range in the network is invalid. In most of the cases, it signals a DoS attack originated by an internal user or by a previously compromised internal machine; in both cases, applying this filter will stop the attack. 14. What is the BEST backup strategy for a large database with data supporting online sales? A. Weekly full backup with daily incremental backup B. Daily full backup C. Clustered servers D. Mirrored hard disks ANSWER: A NOTE: Weekly full backup and daily incremental backup is the best backup strategy; it ensures the ability to recover the database and yet reduces the daily backup time requirements. A full backup normally requires a couple of hours, and therefore it can be impractical to conduct a full backup every day. Clustered servers provide a redundant processing capability, but are not a backup. Mirrored hard disks will not help in case of disaster. 15. Which of the following is a feature of Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) in wireless networks? A. Session keys are dynamic B. Private symmetric keys are used C. Keys are static and shared D. Source addresses are not encrypted or authenticated ANSWER: A NOTE: WPA uses dynamic session keys, achieving stronger encryption than wireless encryption privacy (WEP), which operates with static keys (same key is used for everyone in the wireless network). All other choices are weaknesses of WEP. 16. The ultimate purpose of IT governance is to: A. encourage optimal use of IT. B. reduce IT costs. C. decentralize IT resources across the organization. D. centralize control of IT. ANSWER: A NOTE: IT governance is intended to specify the combination of decision rights and accountability that is best for the enterprise. It is different for every enterprise. Reducing IT costs may not be the best IT governance outcome for an enterprise. Decentralizing IT resources across the organization is not always desired, although it may be desired in a decentralized environment. Centralizing control of IT is not always desired. An example of where it might be desired is an enterprise desiring a single point of customer contact. 17. The MAIN purpose of a transaction audit trail is to: A. reduce the use of storage media. B. determine accountability and responsibility for processed transactions. C. help an IS auditor trace transactions. D. provide useful information for capacity planning. ANSWER: B NOTE: Enabling audit trails aids in establishing the accountability and responsibility for processed transactions by tracing them through the information system. Enabling audit trails increases the use of disk space. A transaction log file would be used to trace transactions, but would not aid in determining accountability and responsibility. The objective of capacity planning is the efficient and effective use of IT resources and requires information such as CPU utilization, bandwidth, number of users, etc. 18. An IS auditor invited to a development project meeting notes that no project risks have been documented. When the IS auditor raises this issue, the project manager responds that it is too early to identify risks and that, if risks do start impacting the project, a risk manager will be hired. The appropriate response of the IS auditor would be to: A. tress the importance of spending time at this point in the project to consider and document risks, and to develop contingency plans. B. accept the project managers position as the project manager is accountable for the outcome of the project. C. offer to work with the risk manager when one is appointed. D. inform the project manager that the IS auditor will conduct a review of the risks at the completion of the requirements definition phase of the project. ANSWER: A NO TE: The majority of project risks can typically be identified before a project begins, allowing mitigation/avoidance plans to be put in place to deal with these risks. A project should have a clear link back to corporate strategy and tactical plans to support this strategy. The process of setting corporate strategy, setting objectives and developing tactical plans should include the consideration of risks. Appointing a risk manager is a good practice but waiting until the project has been impacted by risks is misguided. Risk management needs to be forward looking; allowing risks to evolve into issues that adversely impact the project represents a failure of risk management. With or without a risk manager, persons within and outside of the project team need to be consulted and encouraged to comment when they believe new risks have emerged or risk priorities have changed. The IS auditor has an obligation to the project sponsor and the organization to advise on appropriate project management practices. Waiting for the possible appointment of a risk manager represents an unnecessary and dangerous delay to implementing risk management. 19. A data center has a badge-entry system. Which of the following is MOST important to protect the computing assets in the center? A. Badge readers are installed in locations where tampering would be noticed B. The computer that controls the badge system is backed up frequently C. A process for promptly deactivating lost or stolen badges exists D. All badge entry attempts are logged ANSWER: C NOTE: Tampering with a badge reader cannot open the door, so this is irrelevant. Logging the entry attempts may be of limited value. The biggest risk is from unauthorized individuals who can enter the data center, whether they are employees or not. Thus, a process of deactivating lost or stolen badges is important. The configuration of the system does not change frequently, therefore frequent backup is not necessary. 20. Which of the following would impair the independence of a quality assurance team? A. Ensuring compliance with development methods B. Checking the testing assumptions C. Correcting coding errors during the testing process D. Checking the code to ensure proper documentation ANSWER: C NOTE: Correction of code should not be a responsibility of the quality assurance team as it would not ensure segregation of duties and would impair the teams independence. The other choices are valid quality assurance functions. 1. Which of the following is the BEST type of program for an organization to implement to aggregate, correlate and store different log and event files, and then produce weekly and monthly reports for IS auditors? A. A security information event management (SIEM) product B. An open-source correlation engine C. A log management tool D. An extract, transform, load (ETL) system A NSWER: C NOTE: A log management tool is a product designed to aggregate events from many log files (with distinct formats and from different sources), store them and typically correlate them offline to produce many reports (e. . , exception reports showing different statistics including anomalies and suspicious activities), and to answer time-based queries (e. g. , how many users have entered the system between 2 a. m. and 4 a. m. over the past three weeks? ). A SIEM product has some similar features. It correlates events from log files, but does it online and normally is not oriented to storing many weeks of historical information and producing audit reports. A correlation engine is part of a SIEM product. It is oriented to making an online correlation of events. An extract, transform, load (ETL) is part of a business intelligence system, dedicated to extracting operational or production data, transforming that data and loading them to a central repository (data warehouse or data mart); an ETL does not correlate data or produce reports, and normally it does not have extractors to read log file formats. 22. To ensure authentication, confidentiality and integrity of a message, the sender should encrypt the hash of the message with the senders: A. public key and then encrypt the message with the receivers private key. B. private key and then encrypt the message with the receivers public key. C. public key and then encrypt the message with the receivers public key. D. private key and then encrypt the message with the receivers private key. ANSWER: B NOTE: Obtaining the hash of the message ensures integrity; signing the hash of the message with the senders private key ensures the authenticity of the origin, and encrypting the resulting message with the receivers public key ensures confidentiality. The other choices are incorrect. 23. An IS auditor observes a weakness in the tape management system at a data center in that some parameters are set to bypass or ignore tape header records. Which of the following is the MOST effective compensating control for this weakness? A. Staging and job set up B. Supervisory review of logs C. Regular back-up of tapes D. Offsite storage of tapes ANSWER: A NOTE: If the IS auditor finds that there are effective staging and job set up processes, this can be accepted as a compensating control. Choice B is a detective control while choices C and D are corrective controls, none of which would serve as good compensating controls. 24. What is the MOST prevalent security risk when an organization implements remote virtual private network (VPN) access to its network? A. Malicious code could be spread across the network B. VPN logon could be spoofed C. Traffic could be sniffed and decrypted D. VPN gateway could be compromised ANSWER: A NOTE: VPN is a mature technology; VPN devices are hard to break. However, when remote access is enabled, malicious code in a remote client could spread to the organizations network. Though choices B, C and D are security risks, VPN technology largely mitigates these risks. 25. The activation of an enterprises business continuity plan should be based on predetermined criteria that address the: A. duration of the outage. B. ype of outage. C. probability of the outage. D. cause of the outage. ANSWER: A NOTE: The initiation of a business continuity plan (action) should primarily be based on the maximum period for which a business function can be disrupted before the disruption threatens the achievement of organizational objectives. 26. After observing suspicious activities in a server, a manager requests a forensic anal ysis. Which of the following findings should be of MOST concern to the investigator? A. Server is a member of a workgroup and not part of the server domain B. Guest account is enabled on the server C. Recently, 100 users were created in the server D. Audit logs are not enabled for the server ANSWER: D NOTE: Audit logs can provide evidence which is required to proceed with an investigation and should not be disabled. For business needs, a server can be a member of a workgroup and, therefore, not a concern. Having a guest account enabled on a system is a poor security practice but not a forensic investigation concern. Recently creating 100 users in the server may have been required to meet business needs and should not be a concern. 27. Minimum password length and password complexity verification are examples of: A. etection controls. B. control objectives. C. audit objectives. D. control procedures. ANSWER: D NOTE: Control procedures are practices established by management to achieve specific control objectives. Password controls are preventive controls, not detective controls. Control objectives are declarations of expected results from implementing controls and audit objectives a re the specific goals of an audit. 28. Which of the following is an advantage of the top-down approach to software testing? A. Interface errors are identified early B. Testing can be started before all programs are complete C. It is more effective than other testing approaches D. Errors in critical modules are detected sooner ANSWER: A NOTE: The advantage of the top-down approach is that tests of major functions are conducted early, thus enabling the detection of interface errors sooner. The most effective testing approach is dependent on the environment being tested. Choices B and D are advantages of the bottom-up approach to system testing. 29. After initial investigation, an IS auditor has reasons to believe that fraud may be present. The IS auditor should: A. expand activities to determine whether an investigation is warranted. B. report the matter to the audit committee. C. report the possibility of fraud to top management and ask how they would like to proceed. D. consult with external legal counsel to determine the course of action to be taken. ANSWER: A NOTE: An IS auditors responsibilities for detecting fraud include evaluating fraud indicators and deciding whether any additional action is necessary or whether an investigation should be recommended. The IS auditor should notify the appropriate authorities within the organization only if it has determined that the indicators of fraud are sufficient to recommend an investigation. Normally, the IS auditor does not have authority to consult with external legal counsel. 30. As a driver of IT governance, transparency of ITs cost, value and risks is primarily achieved through: A. performance measurement. B. strategic alignment. C. value delivery. D. resource management. ANSWER: A NOTE: Performance measurement includes setting and monitoring measurable objectives of what the IT processes need to deliver (process outcome) and how they deliver it (process capability and performance). Strategic alignment primarily focuses on ensuring linkage of business and IT plans. Value delivery is about executing the value proposition throughout the delivery cycle. Resource management is about the optimal investment in and proper management of critical IT resources. Transparency is primarily achieved through performance measurement as it provides information to the stakeholders on how well the enterprise is performing when compared to objectives. 31. A technical lead who was working on a major project has left the organization. The project manager reports suspicious system activities on one of the servers that is accessible to the whole team. What would be of GREATEST concern if discovered during a forensic investigation? A. Audit logs are not enabled for the system B. A logon ID for the technical lead still exists C. Spyware is installed on the system D. A Trojan is installed on the system ANSWER: A NOTE: Audit logs are critical to the investigation of the event; however, if not enabled, misuse of the logon ID of the technical lead and the guest account could not be established. The logon ID of the technical lead should have been deleted as soon as the employee left the organization but, without audit logs, misuse of the ID is difficult to prove. Spyware installed on the system is a concern but could have been installed by any user and, again, without the presence of logs, discovering who installed the spyware is difficult. A Trojan installed on the system is a concern, but it can be done by any user as it is accessible to the whole group and, without the presence of logs, investigation would be difficult. 32. When using a universal storage bus (USB) flash drive to transport confidential corporate data to an offsite location, an effective control would be to: A. carry the flash drive in a portable safe. B. assure management that you will not lose the flash drive. C. equest that management deliver the flash drive by courier. D. encrypt the folder containing the data with a strong key. ANSWER: D NOTE: Encryption, with a strong key, is the most secure method for protecting the information on the flash drive. Carrying the flash drive in a portable safe does not guarantee the safety of the information in the event that the safe is stolen or lost. No matter what measures you take, the chance of losing the flash drive still exists. It is possible that a courier might lose the flash drive or that it might be stolen. 33. The FIRST step in a successful attack to a system would be: A. gathering information. B. aining access. C. denying services. D. evading detection. ANSWER: A NOTE: Successful attacks start by gathering information about the target system. This is done in advance so that the attacker gets to know the target systems and their vulnerabilities. All of the other choices are based on the information gathered. 34. An IS auditor finds that conference rooms have active network ports. Which of the following is MOST important to ensure? A. The corporate network is using an intrusion prevention system (IPS) B. This part of the network is isolated from the corporate network C. A single sign-on has been implemented in the corporate network D. Antivirus software is in place to protect the corporate network ANSWER: B NOTE: If the conference rooms have access to the corporate network, unauthorized users may be able to connect to the corporate network; therefore, both networks should be isolated either via a firewall or being physically separated. An IPS would detect possible attacks, but only after they have occurred. A single sign-on would ease authentication management. Antivirus software would reduce the impact of possible viruses; however, unauthorized users would still be able to access the corporate network, which is the biggest risk. 5. While observing a full simulation of the business continuity plan, an IS auditor notices that the notification systems within the organizational facilities could be severely impacted by infrastructural damage. The BEST recommendation the IS auditor can provide to the organization is to ensure: A. the salvage team is trained to use the notification system. B. the notification system pro vides for the recovery of the backup. C. redundancies are built into the notification system. D. the notification systems are stored in a vault. ANSWER: C NOTE: If the notification system has been severely impacted by the damage, redundancy would be the best control. The salvage team would not be able to use a severely damaged notification system, even if they are trained to use it. The recovery of the backups has no bearing on the notification system and storing the notification system in a vault would be of little value if the building is damaged. 36. The human resources (HR) department has developed a system to allow employees to enroll in benefits via a web site on the corporate Intranet. Which of the following would protect the confidentiality of the data? A. SSL encryption B. Two-factor authentication C. Encrypted session cookies D. IP address verification ANSWER: A NOTE: The main risk in this scenario is confidentiality, therefore the only option which would provide confidentiality is Secure Socket Layer (SSL) encryption. The remaining options deal with authentication issues. 37. Regarding a disaster recovery plan, the role of an IS auditor should include: A. identifying critical applications. B. determining the external service providers involved in a recovery test. C. observing the tests of the disaster recovery plan. D. etermining the criteria for establishing a recovery time objective (RTO). ANSWER: C NOTE: The IS auditor should be present when disaster recovery plans are tested, to ensure that the test meets the targets for restoration, and the recovery procedures are effective and efficient. As appropriate, the auditor should provide a report of the test results. All other choices are a responsibility of management. 38. Which o f the following is the BEST practice to ensure that access authorizations are still valid? A. Information owner provides authorization for users to gain access B. Identity management is integrated with human resource processes C. Information owners periodically review the access controls D. An authorization matrix is used to establish validity of access ANSWER: B NOTE: Personnel and departmental changes can result in authorization creep and can impact the effectiveness of access controls. Many times when personnel leave an organization, or employees are promoted, transferred or demoted, their system access is not fully removed, which increases the risk of unauthorized access. The best practices for ensuring access authorization is still valid is to integrate identity management with human resources processes. When an employee transfers to a different function, access rights are adjusted at the same time. 39. The application systems of an organization using open-source software have no single recognized developer producing patches. Which of the following would be the MOST secure way of updating open-source software? A. Rewrite the patches and apply them B. Code review and application of available patches C. Develop in-house patches D. Identify and test suitable patches before applying them ANSWER: D NOTE: Suitable patches from the existing developers should be selected and tested before applying them. Rewriting the patches and applying them is not a correct answer because it would require skilled resources and time to rewrite the patches. Code review could be possible but tests need to be performed before applying the patches. Since the system was developed outside the organization, the IT department may not have the necessary skills and resources to develop patches. 40. Which of the following is a prevalent risk in the development of end-user computing (EUC) applications? A. Applications may not be subject to testing and IT general controls B. Increased development and maintenance costs C. Increased application development time D. Decision-making may be impaired due to diminished responsiveness to requests for information ANSWER: A NOTE: End-user developed applications may not be subjected to an independent outside review by systems analysts and frequently are not created in the context of a formal development methodology. These applications may lack appropriate standards, controls, quality assurance procedures, and documentation. A risk of end-user applications is that management may rely on them as much as traditional applications. End-user computing (EUC) systems typically result in reduced application development and maintenance costs, and a reduced development cycle time. EUC systems normally increase flexibility and responsiveness to managements information requests. 41. The MAJOR consideration for an IS auditor reviewing an organizations IT project portfolio is the: A. IT budget. B. existing IT environment. C. business plan. D. investment plan. ANSWER: C NOTE: One of the most important reasons for which projects get funded is how well a project meets an organizations strategic objectives. Portfolio management takes a holistic view of a companys overall IT strategy. IT strategy should be aligned with the business strategy and, hence, reviewing the business plan should be the major consideration. Choices A, B and D are important but secondary to the importance of reviewing the business plan. 42. Which of the following is an attribute of the control self-assessment (CSA) approach? A. Broad stakeholder involvement B. Auditors are the primary control analysts C. Limited employee participation D. Policy driven ANSWER: A NOTE: The control self-assessment (CSA) approach emphasizes management of and accountability for developing and monitoring the controls of an organizations business processes. The attributes of CSA include empowered employees, continuous improvement, extensive employee participation and training, all of which are representations of broad stakeholder involvement. Choices B, C and D are attributes of a traditional audit approach. 43. The BEST method for assessing the effectiveness of a business continuity plan is to review the: A. plans and compare them to appropriate standards. B. results from previous tests. C. emergency procedures and employee training. D. offsite storage and environmental controls. ANSWER: B NOTE: Previous test results will provide evidence of the effectiveness of the business continuity plan. Comparisons to standards will give some assurance that the plan addresses the critical aspects of a business continuity plan but will not reveal anything about its effectiveness. Reviewing emergency procedures, offsite storage and environmental controls would provide insight into some aspects of the plan but would fall short of providing assurance of the plans overall effectiveness. 4. An organization has just completed their annual risk assessment. Regarding the business continuity plan, what should an IS auditor recommend as the next step for the organization? A. Review and evaluate the business continuity plan for adequacy B. Perform a full simulation of the business continuity plan C. Train and educate employees regarding the business continuity plan D. Notify critical contac ts in the business continuity plan ANSWER: A NOTE: The business continuity plan should be reviewed every time a risk assessment is completed for the organization. Training of the employees and a simulation should be performed after the business continuity plan has been deemed adequate for the organization. There is no reason to notify the business continuity plan contacts at this time. 45. Which of the following insurance types provide for a loss arising from fraudulent acts by employees? A. Business interruption B. Fidelity coverage C. Errors and omissions D. Extra expense ANSWER: B NOTE: Fidelity insurance covers the loss arising from dishonest or fraudulent acts by employees. Business interruption insurance covers the loss of profit due to the disruption in the operations of an organization. Errors and omissions insurance provides legal liability protection in the event that the professional practitioner commits an act that results in financial loss to a client. Extra expense insurance is designed to cover the extra costs of continuing operations following a disaster/disruption within an organization. 46. An IS auditor reviewing the risk assessment process of an organization should FIRST: A. identify the reasonable threats to the information assets. B. analyze the technical and organizational vulnerabilities. C. identify and rank the information assets. D. evaluate the effect of a potential security breach. ANSWER: C NOTE: Identification and ranking of information assets- e. g. , data criticality, locations of assets- will set the tone or scope of how to assess risk in relation to the organizational value of the asset. Second, the threats facing each of the organizations assets should be analyzed according to their value to the organization. Third, weaknesses should be identified so that controls can be evaluated to determine if they mitigate the weaknesses. Fourth, analyze how these weaknesses, in absence of given controls, would impact the organization information assets. 47. An organization is using an enterprise resource management (ERP) application. Which of the following would be an effective access control? A. User-level permissions B. Role-based C. Fine-grained D. Discretionary ANSWER: B NOTE: Role-based access controls the system access by defining roles for a group of users. Users are assigned to the various roles and the access is granted based on the users role. User-level permissions for an ERP system would create a larger administrative overhead. Fine-grained access control is very difficult to implement and maintain in the context of a large nterprise. Discretionary access control may be configured or modified by the users or data owners, and therefore may create inconsistencies in the access control management. 48. The sender of a public key would be authenticated by a: A. certificate authority. B. digital signature. C. digital certificate. D. registration authority. ANSWER: C NOTE: A digital certificate is an electronic document that declar es a public key holder is who the holder claims to be. The certificates do handle data authentication as they are used to determine who sent a particular message. A certificate authority issues the digital certificates, and distributes, generates and manages public keys. A digital signature is used to ensure integrity of the message being sent and solve the nonrepudiation issue of message origination. The registration authority would perform most of the administrative tasks of a certificate authority, i. e. , registration of the users of a digital signature plus authenticating the information that is put in the digital certificate. 49. Which of the following is the MOST reliable form of single factor personal identification? A. Smart card B. Password C. Photo identification D. Iris scan ANSWER: D NOTE: Since no two irises are alike, identification and verification can be done with confidence. There is no guarantee that a smart card is being used by the correct person since it can be shared, stolen or lost and found. Passwords can be shared and, if written down, carry the risk of discovery. Photo IDs can be forged or falsified. 50. A business application system accesses a corporate database using a single ID and password embedded in a program. Which of the following would provide efficient access control over the organizations data? A. Introduce a secondary authentication method such as card swipe B. Apply role-based permissions within the application system C. Have users input the ID and password for each database transaction D. Set an expiration period for the database password embedded in the program ANSWER: B NOTE: When a single ID and password are embedded in a program, the best compensating control would be a sound access control over the application layer and procedures to ensure access to data is granted based on a users role. The issue is user permissions, not authentication, therefore adding a stronger authentication does not improve the situation. Having a user input the ID and password for access would provide a better control because a database log would identify the initiator of the activity. However, this may not be efficient because each transaction would require a separate authentication process. It is a good practice to set an expiration date for a password. However, this might not be practical for an ID automatically logged in from the program. Often, this type of password is set not to expire. 51. Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when deciding areas of priority for IT governance implementation? A. Process maturity B. Performance indicators C. Business risk D. Assurance reports ANSWER: C NOTE: Priority should be given to those areas which represent a known risk to the enterprises operations. The level of process maturity, process performance and audit reports will feed into the decision making process. Those areas that represent real risk to the business should be given priority. 52. An IS auditor has been asked to participate in project initiation meetings for a critical project. The IS auditors MAIN concern should be that the: A. omplexity and risks associated with the project have been analyzed. B. resources needed throughout the project have been determined. C. project deliverables have been identified. D. a contract for external parties involved in the project has been completed. ANSWER: A NOTE: Understanding complexity and risk, and actively managing these throughout a project are critical to a successful outcome. The other choices, while important during the course of the project, cannot be fully determined at the time the project is initiated, and are often contingent upon the risk and complexity of the project. 3. Which of the following would MOST effectively control the usage of universal storage bus (USB) storage devices? A. Policies that require instant dismissal if such devices are found B. Software for tracking and managing USB storage devices C. Administratively disabling the USB port D. Searching personnel for USB storage devices at the facilitys entrance ANSWER: B NOTE: Software for centralized tracking and monitoring would allow a USB usage policy to be applied to each user based on changing business requirements, and would provide for monitoring and reporting exceptions to management. A policy requiring dismissal may result in increased employee attrition and business requirements would not be properly addressed. Disabling ports would be complex to manage and might not allow for new business needs. Searching of personnel for USB storage devices at the entrance to a facility is not a practical solution since these devices are small and could be easily hidden. 54. When performing a database review, an IS auditor notices that some tables in the database are not normalized. The IS auditor should next: A. recommend that the database be normalized. B. review the conceptual data model. C. review the stored procedures. D. review the justification. ANSWER: D NOTE: If the database is not normalized, the IS auditor should review the justification since, in some situations, denormalization is recommended for performance reasons. The IS auditor should not recommend normalizing the database until further investigation takes place. Reviewing the conceptual data model or the stored procedures will not provide information about normalization. 55. Which of the following would be the GREATEST cause for concern when data are sent over the Internet using HTTPS protocol? A. Presence of spyware in one of the ends B. The use of a traffic sniffing tool C. The implementation of an RSA-compliant solution D. A symmetric cryptography is used for transmitting data ANSWER: A NOTE: Encryption using secure sockets layer/transport layer security (SSL/TLS) tunnels makes it difficult to intercept data in transit, but when spyware is running on an end users computer, data are collected before encryption takes place. The other choices are related to encrypting the traffic, but the presence of spyware in one of the ends captures the data before encryption takes place. 56. At the completion of a system development project, a postproject review should include which of the following? A. Assessing risks that may lead to downtime after the production release B. Identifying lessons learned that may be applicable to future projects C. Verifying the controls in the delivered system are working D. Ensuring that test data are deleted ANSWER: B NOTE: A project team has something to learn from each and every project. As risk assessment is a key issue for project management, it is important for the organization to accumulate lessons learned and integrate them into future projects. An assessment of potential downtime should be made with the operations group and other specialists before implementing a system. Verifying that controls are working should be covered during the acceptance test phase and possibly, again, in the postimplementation review. Test data should be retained for future regression testing. 57. While reviewing the IT infrastructure, an IS auditor notices that storage resources are continuously being added. The IS auditor should: A. recommend the use of disk mirroring. B. review the adequacy of offsite storage. C. eview the capacity management process. D. recommend the use of a compression algorithm. ANSWER: C NOTE: Capacity management is the planning and monitoring of computer resources to ensure that available IT resources are used efficiently and effectively. Business criticality must be considered before recommending a disk mirroring solution and offsite storage is unrelated to the problem. Though data compression may save disk space, it coul d affect system performance. 58. Which of the following would be MOST important for an IS auditor to verify when conducting a business continuity audit? A. Data backups are performed on a timely basis B. A recovery site is contracted for and available as needed C. Human safety procedures are in place D. Insurance coverage is adequate and premiums are current ANSWER: C NOTE: The most important element in any business continuity process is the protection of human life. This takes precedence over all other aspects of the plan. 59. While reviewing sensitive electronic work papers, the IS auditor noticed that they were not encrypted. This could compromise the: A. audit trail of the versioning of the work papers. B. approval of the audit phases. C. access rights to the work papers. D. confidentiality of the work papers. ANSWER: D NOTE: Encryption provides confidentiality for the electronic work papers. Audit trails, audit phase approvals and access to the work papers do not, of themselves, affect the confidentiality but are part of the reason for requiring encryption. 60. An IS auditor reviewing an accounts payable system discovers that audit logs are not being reviewed. When this issue is raised with management the response is that additional controls are not necessary because effective system access controls are in place. The BEST response the auditor can make is to: A. review the integrity of system access controls. B. accept managements statement that effective access controls are in place. C. stress the importance of having a system control framework in place. D. review the background checks of the accounts payable staff. ANSWER: C NOTE: Experience has demonstrated that reliance purely on preventative controls is dangerous. Preventative controls may not prove to be as strong as anticipated or their effectiveness can deteriorate over time. Evaluating the cost of controls versus the quantum of risk is a valid management concern. However, in a high-risk system a comprehensive control framework is needed. Intelligent design should permit additional detective and corrective controls to be established that dont have high ongoing costs, e. g. , automated interrogation of logs to highlight suspicious individual transactions or data patterns. Effective access controls are, in themselves, a positive but, for reasons outlined above, may not sufficiently compensate for other control weaknesses. In this situation the IS auditor needs to be proactive. The IS auditor has a fundamental obligation to point out control weaknesses that give rise to unacceptable risks to the organization and work with management to have these corrected. Reviewing background checks on accounts payable staff does not provide evidence that fraud will not occur. 61. A firewall is being deployed at a new location. Which of the following is the MOST important factor in ensuring a successful deployment? A. Reviewing logs frequently B. Testing and validating the rules C. Training a local administrator at the new location D. Sharing firewall administrative duties ANSWER: B NOTE: A mistake in the rule set can render a firewall insecure. Therefore, testing and validating the rules is the most important factor in ensuring a successful deployment. A regular review of log files would not start until the deployment has been completed. Training a local administrator may not be necessary if the firewalls are managed from a central location. Having multiple administrators is a good idea, but not the most important. 62. When evaluating the controls of an EDI application, an IS auditor should PRIMARILY be concerned with the risk of: A. xcessive transaction turnaround time. B. application interface failure. C. improper transaction authorization. D. nonvalidated batch totals. ANSWER: C NOTE: Foremost among the risks associated with electronic data interchange (EDI) is improper transaction authorization. Since the interaction with the parties is electronic, there is no inherent authentication. The other choices, although risks, are not as significant. 63. The PRIMARY objective of implementing corporate governance by an organizations management is to: A. provide strategic direction. B. control business operations. C. align IT with business. D. implement best practices. ANSWER: A NOTE: Corporate governance is a set of management practices to provide strategic direction, thereby ensuring that goals are achievable, risks are properly addressed and organizational resources are properly utilized. Hence, the primary objective of corporate governance is to provide strategic direction. Based on the strategic direction, business operations are directed and controlled. 64. To determine if unauthorized changes have been made to production code the BEST audit procedure is to: A. xamine the change control system records and trace them forward to object code files. B. review access control permissions operating within the production program libraries. C. examine object code to find instances of changes and trace them back to change control records. D. review change approved designations established within the change control system. ANSWER: C NOTE: The procedure of examining object code files to establish in stances of code changes and tracing these back to change control system records is a substantive test that directly addresses the risk of unauthorized code changes. The other choices are valid procedures to apply in a change control audit but they do not directly address the risk of unauthorized code changes. 65. When reviewing an active project, an IS auditor observed that, because of a reduction in anticipated benefits and increased costs, the business case was no longer valid. The IS auditor should recommend that the: A. project be discontinued. B. business case be updated and possible corrective actions be identified. C. project be returned to the project sponsor for reapproval. D. project be ompleted and the business case be updated later. ANSWER: B NOTE: An IS auditor should not recommend discontinuing or completing the project before reviewing an updated business case. The IS auditor should recommend that the business case be kept current throughout the project since it is a key input to decisions made throughout the life of any project. 66. Which of the following audit techniques would BEST aid an auditor in determining whether there hav e been unauthorized program changes since the last authorized program update? A. Test data run B. Code review C. Automated code comparison D. Review of code migration procedures ANSWER: C NOTE: An automated code comparison is the process of comparing two versions of the same program to determine whether the two correspond. It is an efficient technique because it is an automated procedure. Test data runs permit the auditor to verify the processing of preselected transactions, but provide no evidence about unexercised portions of a program. Code review is the process of reading program source code listings to determine whether the code contains potential errors or inefficient statements. A code review can be used as a means of code comparison but it is inefficient. The review of code migration procedures would not detect program changes. 67. Doing which of the following during peak production hours could result in unexpected downtime? A. Performing data migration or tape backup B. Performing preventive maintenance on electrical systems C. Promoting applications from development to the staging environment D. Replacing a failed power supply in the core router of the data center ANSWER: B NOTE: Choices A and C are processing events which may impact performance, but ould not cause downtime. Enterprise-class routers have redundant hot-swappable power supplies, so replacing a failed power supply should not be an issue. Preventive maintenance activities should be scheduled for non-peak times of the day, and preferably during a maintenance window time period. A mishap or incident caused by a maintenance worker could result in unplanned downtime. 68. Which of the following is the MOST robust method for disposing of magnetic media that contains confidential information? A. Degaussing B. Defragmenting C. Erasing D. Destroying ANSWER: D NOTE: Destroying magnetic media is the only way to assure that confidential information cannot be recovered. Degaussing or demagnetizing is not sufficient to fully erase information from magnetic media. The purpose of defragmentation is to eliminate fragmentation in file systems and does not remove information. Erasing or deleting magnetic media does not remove the information; this method simply changes a files indexing information. 69. The MAIN criterion for determining the severity level of a service disruption incident is: A. cost of recovery. B. negative public opinion. C. geographic location. D. downtime. ANSWER: D NOTE: The longer the period of time a client cannot be serviced, the greater the severity of the incident. The cost of recovery could be minimal yet the service downtime could have a major impact. Negative public opinion is a symptom of an incident. Geographic location does not determine the severity of the incident. 70. During the design of a business continuity plan, the business impact analysis (BIA) identifies critical processes and supporting applications. This will PRIMARILY influence the: A. responsibility for maintaining the business continuity plan. B. criteria for selecting a recovery site provider. C. recovery strategy. D. responsibilities of key personnel. ANSWER: C NOTE: The most appropriate strategy is selected based on the relative risk level and criticality identified in the business impact analysis (BIA. ), The other choices are made after the selection or design of the appropriate recovery strategy. 71. What is the lowest level of the IT governance maturity model where an IT balanced scorecard exists? A. Repeatable but Intuitive B. Defined C. Managed and Measurable D. Optimized ANSWER: B NOTE: Defined (level 3) is the lowest level at which an IT balanced scorecard is defined. 2. During the system testing phase of an application development project the IS auditor should review the: A. conceptual design specifications. B. vendor contract. C. error reports. D. program change requests. ANSWER: C NOTE: Testing is crucial in determining that user requirements have been validated. The IS auditor should be involved in this phase and review error reports for their precision in re cognizing erroneous data and review the procedures for resolving errors. A conceptual design specification is a document prepared during the requirements definition phase. A vendor ontract is prepared during a software acquisition process. Program change requests would normally be reviewed as a part of the postimplementation phase. 73. When reviewing procedures for emergency changes to programs, the IS auditor should verify that the procedures: A. allow changes, which will be completed using after-the-fact follow-up. B. allow undocumented changes directly to the production library. C. do not allow any emergency changes. D. allow programmers permanent access to production programs. ANSWER: A NOTE: There may be situations where emergency fixes are required to resolve system problems. This involves the use of special logon IDs that grant programmers temporary access to production programs during emergency situations. Emergency changes should be completed using after-the-fact follow-up procedures, which ensure that normal procedures are retroactively applied; otherwise, production may be impacted. Changes made in this fashion should be held in an emergency library from where they can be moved to the production library, following the normal change management process. Programmers should not directly alter the production library nor should they be allowed permanent access to production programs. 4. Though management has stated otherwise, an IS auditor has reasons to believe that the organization is using software that is not licensed. In this situation, the IS auditor should: A. include the statement of management in the audit report. B. identify whether such software is, indeed, being used by the organization. C. reconfirm with management the usage of the software. D . discuss the issue with senior management since reporting this could have a negative impact on the organization. ANSWER: B NOTE: When there is an indication that an organization might be using nlicensed software, the IS auditor should obtain sufficient evidence before including it in the report. With respect to this matter, representations obtained from management cannot be independently verified. If the organization is using software that is not licensed, the auditor, to maintain objectivity and independence, must include this in the report. 75. Which of the following would be BEST prevented by a raised floor in the computer machine room? A. Damage of wires around computers and servers B. A power failure from static electricity C. Shocks from earthquakes D. Water flood damage ANSWER: A NOTE: The primary reason for having a raised floor is to enable power cables and data cables to be installed underneath the floor. This eliminates the safety and damage risks posed when cables are placed in a spaghetti-like fashion on an open floor. Static electricity should be avoided in the machine room; therefore, measures such as specially manufactured carpet or shoes would be more appropriate for static prevention than a raised floor. Raised floors do not address shocks from earthquakes. To address earthquakes, anti-seismic architecture would be required to establish a quake-resistant structural framework. Computer equipment needs to be protected against water. However, a raised floor would not prevent damage to the machines in the event of overhead water pipe leakage. 76. The network of an organization has been the victim of several intruders attacks. Which of the following measures would allow for the early detection of such incidents? A. Antivirus software B. Hardening the servers C. Screening routers D. Honeypots ANSWER: D NOTE: Honeypots can collect data on precursors of attacks. Since they serve no business function, honeypots are hosts that have no authorized users other than the honeypot administrators. All activity directed at them is considered suspicious. Attackers will scan and attack honeypots, giving administrators data on new trends and attack tools, particularly malicious code. However, honeypots are a supplement to, not a replacement for, properly securing networks, systems and applications. If honeypots are to be used by an organization, qualified incident handlers and intrusion detection analysts should manage them. The other choices do not provide indications of potential attacks. 77. The purpose of a deadman door controlling access to a computer facility is primarily to: A. prevent piggybacking. B. prevent toxic gases from entering the data center. C. starve a fire of oxygen. D. prevent an excessively rapid entry to, or exit from, the facility. ANSWER: A NOTE: The purpose of a deadman door controlling access to a computer facility is primarily intended to prevent piggybacking. Choices B and C could be accomplished with a single self-closing door. Choice D is invalid, as a rapid exit may be necessary in some circumstances, e. g. , a fire. 78. The MOST important reason for an IS auditor to obtain sufficient and appropriate audit evidence is to: A. comply with regulatory requirements. B. rovide a basis for drawing reasonable conclusions. C. ensure complete audit coverage. D. perform the audit according to the defined scope. ANSWER: B NOTE: The scope of an IS audit is defined by its objectives. This involves identifying control weaknesses relevant to the scope of the audit. Obtaining sufficient and appropriate evidence assists the auditor in not only identifying control weakness es but also documenting and validating them. Complying with regulatory requirements, ensuring coverage and the execution of audit are all relevant to an audit but are not the reason why sufficient and relevant evidence is required. 9. During the audit of a database server, which of the following would be considered the GREATEST exposure? A. The password does not expire on the administrator account B. Default global security settings for the database remain unchanged C. Old data have not been purged D. Database activity is not fully logged ANSWER: B NOTE: Default security settings for the database could allow issues like blank user passwords or passwords that were the same as the username. Logging all database activity is not practical. Failure to purge old data may present a performance issue but is not an immediate security concern. Choice A is an exposure but not as serious as B. 80. An IS auditor finds that a DBA has read and write access to production data. The IS auditor should: A. accept the DBA access as a common practice. B. assess the controls relevant to the DBA function. C. recommend the immediate revocation of the DBA access to production data. D. review user access authorizations approved by the DBA. ANSWER: B NOTE: It is good practice when finding a potential exposure to look for the best controls. Though granting the database administrator (DBA) access to production data might be a common practice, the IS auditor should evaluate the relevant controls. The DBA should have access based on a need-to-know and need-to-do basis; therefore, revocation may remove the access required. The DBA, typically, may need to have access to some production data. Granting user authorizations is the responsibility of the data owner and not the DBA. 81. What should be the GREATEST concern to an IS auditor when employees use portable media (MP3 players, flash drives)? A. The copying of sensitive data on them B. The copying of songs and videos on them C. The cost of these devices multipl

Scientific Method Lesson Plan

Scientific Method Lesson Plan This lesson plan gives students hands-on experience with the scientific method. The scientific method lesson plan is appropriate for any science course and can be customized to suit a wide range of educational levels. Scientific Method Plan Introduction The steps of the scientific method generally are to make observations, formulate a hypothesis, design an experiment to test the hypothesis, conduct the experiment and determine whether or not the hypothesis was accepted or rejected. Although students often can state the steps of the scientific method, they may have difficulty actually performing the steps. This exercise provides an opportunity for students to gain hands-on experience with the scientific method. Weve chosen goldfish as the experimental subjects because students find them interesting and engaging. Of course, you can use any subject or topic. Time Required The time required for this exercise is up to you. We recommend using a 3-hour lab period, but the project may be conducted in an hour or spread out over several days, depending on how involved you plan to get. Materials A tank of goldfish. Optimally, you want a bowl of fish for each lab group. Scientific Method Lesson You can work with the entire class, if it is small or feel free to ask students to break up into smaller groups. Explain the steps of the scientific method.Show the students a bowl of goldfish. Make a few observations about the goldfish. Ask the students to name characteristics of the goldfish and to make observations. They might notice the color of the fish, their size, where they swim in the container, how they interact with other fish, etc.Ask the students to list which observations involve something which could be measured or qualified. Explain how scientists need to be able to take data to perform an experiment and that some types of data are easier to record and analyze than others. Help students identify types of data that could be recorded as part of an experiment, as opposed to qualitative data that is harder to measure or data that they simply dont have the tools to measure.Have the students pose questions that they wonder about, based on the observations they have made. Make a list of the types of data they might record during an investigation of each topic.Ask the students to formul ate a hypothesis for each question. Learning how to pose a hypothesis takes practice, so its likely the students will learn from brainstorming as a lab group or class. Put up all of the suggestions on a board and help students distinguish between a hypothesis that they can test versus one they cannot test. Ask students if they can improve any of the hypotheses that are submitted. Select one hypothesis and work with the class to devise a simple experiment to test the hypothesis. Gather data or create fictional data and explain how to test the hypothesis and draw a conclusion based on the results.Ask lab groups to choose a hypothesis and design an experiment to test it.If time permits, have the students conduct the experiment, record and analyze the data and prepare a lab report. Assessment Ideas Ask students to present their results to the class. Be sure they state the hypothesis and whether or not it was supported and cite the evidence for this determination.Have students critique each others lab reports, with their grade determined by how well they identify the strong and weak points of the reports.Ask students to hand in a hypothesis and the proposed experiment for a follow-up project, based on the results of the in-class lesson.

Managment of an Effective Team Assignment Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 500 words - 1

Managment of an Effective Team - Assignment Example The manager should try to be objective when measuring the performance of the employees not to rely on physical appearance which may be deceptive. 2To a larger extent, I think performance can also be clearly measured in the business world. First and foremost, it should be noted that the main essence of engaging in business is to generate profits from the operation. Each organization has startup costs and the expected profits are projected. These constitute the goals and objectives to be achieved by the organization. Thus, a positive increase in the profits generated by a company indicates that its performance is good. However, negative revenue generated in the operations of the organization shows that the performance of the company is not good. The aim of any business is to increase the revenue generated and this can be used as a yardstick to measure the performance of the company. The other method that can be used to measure performance is to obtain feedback from the customers. Essentially, the company should strive to satisfy the needs of the customers. Effort should be made to obtain feedback from the customers in order to e stablish if the company is performing well. 1. My experience with team at school has been influenced by factors such as team size. Working in a team is enlightening given that team members can share their ideas and knowledge in a free environment. It is also easy to share ideas when the tasks and roles to be performed by each team member are clearly outlined. I have also realise that the aspect of synergy of ideas help the team members to pull their efforts towards the same direction. However, the team’s performance can be hurt by adding more members given that people become less motivated. Coordination of the team members becomes a bit challenging and it may also be difficult to control the behaviour of the people within the team.  

World Trade Organisation Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 3000 words

World Trade Organisation - Essay Example Then after the organisation's final decision a panel is set to hear the issues raised. This panel encourages countries to resolve disputes themselves and if necessary the panel gives compulsory decisions which can be appealed. If a country turns down the appeal then it is forced to change its trade policies or World Trade Organisation authorizes those countries harmed by the policies to impose retaliatory measures to the offending country. These measures include an increase in tariffs, use of subsidies or any other protectionist measure. These measures are a clear indication that World Trade Organisation is based on mercantilist principles and is not aimed at bringing unity among member countries by encouraging free trade. The organisation has principles governing its activities like the non discrimination principle, the reciprocity principle and the transparency principles but it rarely uses them. Mercantilism is termed as an economic assumption that makes a country prosper. It mostly depends on the capital supply and the volume resulting from international trade. Capital in this theory is represented by silver, gold and any other trade value which the country has. The capital is increased by creating a positive balance in trade with other nations. The country plays protectionist measures whereby it protects its domestic firms against competition from foreigners by use of tariffs, subsidies and quotas. Mercantilism contains policies that the given countries should follow. For example, mercantilism allows a country to utilise its soil for agricultural activities, mining and manufacturing of products. It also allows a country to use its raw materials to manufacture goods since it assumes that finished goods have more value than the materials. This rule also discourages the importation of foreign goods and also says that no importation should be made if the goods are produced in the country. Mercantilism encourages countries to obtain imports that are indispensable first in exchange of other locally produced goods but not silver or gold. This practice encourages countries to seek to have a large working force because it is one of the policies in mercantilism. Countries are also allowed to seek opportunities for selling excess manufacturers to the foreign firms in exchange of gold or silver. Mercantilists assume that only one country should benefit while the other countries should loose in the process. They also believe that any policies that benefit one country can harm the other country by making that country not to experience economic growth thus not helping them to develop. Although most countries practice liberalism mercantilist principles are still common in other countries. The liberalism method has not benefited all trading partners. Countries practicing neo mercantilism have experienced high economic growth compared to countries practicing free tra de. For example, the US and United Kingdom have experienced slow economic growth after adapting free trade. WTO